CCSP Practice Dumps - Verified By VCETorrent Updated 830 Questions [Q348-Q369]

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CCSP Practice Dumps - Verified By VCETorrent Updated 830 Questions

Updated CCSP Exam Dumps - PDF Questions and Testing Engine


List of opportunities after getting ISC CCSP Certification

After being certified by doing preparation with the help of CCSP Dumps, you can work as Security Analyst. Information Security Engineer, Digital Forensics and Incident Response expert, Computer Network Defense Analyst, Network Architect, Business Continuity Planning Manager, Information Security Architect, a Security Analyst Manager, Compliance Officer, Computer Network Defense Consultant, Computer Network Defense expert, Information Security Risk Manager, Information Security Consultant, Information Security Researcher, Security Consultant, Security Auditor, System Administrator, Chief Technology Officer (CTO) of an organization. Computer Forensics Analyst and many more.


The CCSP certification is ideal for professionals who work with cloud-based solutions or are planning to migrate their organization's infrastructure to the cloud. Certified Cloud Security Professional certification is also beneficial for individuals who are responsible for ensuring the security of cloud-based applications and data, such as security architects, engineers, consultants, and managers. The CCSP certification demonstrates your expertise in cloud security best practices, and it enables you to stay up-to-date with the latest cloud security trends and technologies. With the increasing adoption of cloud-based solutions, the demand for CCSP certified professionals is on the rise, making this certification a valuable asset for your career advancement.


ISC CCSP Exam covers a wide range of topics related to cloud security, including cloud concepts, architecture, design, and deployment models, as well as cloud data security, cloud platform and infrastructure security, and cloud application security. CCSP exam also covers legal and compliance issues related to cloud computing, such as privacy, auditing, and risk management. To be eligible for the exam, candidates must have a minimum of five years of cumulative, paid full-time work experience in information technology, including at least three years in information security and one year in one or more of the six domains covered by the exam.

 

NEW QUESTION # 348
Because of multitenancy, specific risks in the public cloud that don't exist in the other cloud service models include all the following except:

  • A. Information bleed
  • B. Risk of loss/disclosure due to legal seizures
  • C. DoS/DDoS
  • D. Escalation of privilege

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation
DoS/DDoS threats and risks are not unique to the public cloud model.


NEW QUESTION # 349
Which data state would be most likely to use TLS as a protection mechanism?

  • A. Data in use
  • B. Data at rest
  • C. Archived
  • D. Data in transit

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
TLS would be used with data in transit, when packets are exchanged between clients or services and sent across a network. During the data-in-use state, the data is already protected via a technology such as TLS as it is exchanged over the network and then relies on other technologies such as digital signatures for protection while being used. The data-at-rest state primarily uses encryption for stored file objects.
Archived data would be the same as data at rest.


NEW QUESTION # 350
Which of the following BCDR testing methodologies is least intrusive?
Response:

  • A. Full test
  • B. Tabletop
  • C. Walk-through
  • D. Simulation

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 351
Which phase of the cloud data lifecycle also typically entails the process of data classification?
Response:

  • A. Archive
  • B. Create
  • C. Store
  • D. Use

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 352
Which cloud deployment model is MOST likely to offer free or very cheap services to users?

  • A. Public
  • B. Private
  • C. Hybrid
  • D. Community

Answer: A

Explanation:
Public clouds offer services to anyone, regardless of affiliation, and are the most likely to offer free services to users. Examples of public clouds with free services include iCloud, Dropbox, and OneDrive. Private cloud models are designed for specific customers and for their needs, and would not offer services to the public at large, for free or otherwise. A community cloud is specific to a group of similar organizations and would not offer free or widely available public services. A hybrid cloud model would not fit the specifics of the question.


NEW QUESTION # 353
Which of the following is a method for apportioning resources that involves prioritizing resource requests to resolve contention situations?

  • A. Cancellations
  • B. Shares
  • C. Reservations
  • D. Limits

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 354
What is one of the benefits of implementing an egress monitoring solution?
Response:

  • A. Interviewing data owners
  • B. Inventorying data assets
  • C. Preventing DDoS attacks
  • D. Protecting against natural disasters

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 355
The Cloud Security Alliance (CSA) publishes the Notorious Nine, a list of common threats to organizations participating in cloud computing.
According to the CSA, what aspect of managed cloud services makes the threat of malicious insiders so alarming?

  • A. Flexibility
  • B. Scalability
  • C. Multitenancy
  • D. Metered service

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 356
What process is used within a clustered system to provide high availability and load balancing?

  • A. Dynamic resource scheduling
  • B. Dynamic clustering
  • C. Dynamic balancing
  • D. Dynamic optimization

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation
Explanation:
Dynamic resource scheduling (DRS) is used within all clustering systems as the method for clusters to provide high availability, scaling, management, and workload distribution and balancing of jobs and processes. From a physical infrastructure perspective, DRS is used to balance compute loads between physical hosts in a cloud to maintain the desired thresholds and limits on the physical hosts.


NEW QUESTION # 357
Which security concept would business continuity and disaster recovery fall under?

  • A. Fault tolerance
  • B. Confidentiality
  • C. Availability
  • D. Integrity

Answer: C

Explanation:
Disaster recovery and business continuity are vital concerns with availability. If data is destroyed or compromised, having regular backup systems in place as well as being able to perform disaster recovery in the event of a major or widespread problem allows operations to continue with an acceptable loss of time and data to management. This also ensures that sensitive data is protected and persisted in the event of the loss or corruption of data systems or physical storage systems.


NEW QUESTION # 358
Which United States program was designed to enable organizations to bridge the gap between privacy laws and requirements of the United States and the European Union?

  • A. Safe Harbor
  • B. GLBA
  • C. HIPAA
  • D. SOX

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation
Due to the lack of an adequate privacy law or protection at the federal level in the United States, European privacy regulations generally prohibit the exporting or sharing of PII from Europe with the United States.
Participation in the Safe Harbor program is voluntary on behalf of an organization, but it does require them to conform to specific requirements and policies that mirror those from the EU. Thus, organizations can fulfill requirements for data sharing and export and possibly serve customers in the EU.


NEW QUESTION # 359
Which of the following threat types involves the sending of invalid and manipulated requests through a user's client to execute commands on the application under their own credentials?

  • A. Missing function-level access control
  • B. Cross-site request forgery
  • C. Cross-site scripting
  • D. Injection

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
A cross-site request forgery (CSRF) attack forces a client that a user has used to authenticate to an application to send forged requests under the user's own credentials to execute commands and requests that the application thinks are coming from a trusted client and user. Although this type of attack cannot be used to steal data directly because the attacker has no way to see the results of the commands, it does open other ways to compromise an application. Missing function-level access control exists where an application only checks for authorization during the initial login process and does not further validate with each function call. An injection attack is where a malicious actor sends commands or other arbitrary data through input and data fields with the intent of having the application or system execute the code as part of its normal processing and queries.
Cross-site scripting occurs when an attacker is able to send untrusted data to a user's browser without going through validation processes.


NEW QUESTION # 360
Which of the following roles is responsible for overseeing customer relationships and the processing of financial transactions?

  • A. Cloud service business manager
  • B. Cloud service operations manager
  • C. Cloud service manager
  • D. Cloud service deployment

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation
The cloud service business manager is responsible for overseeing business plans and customer relationships as well as processing financial transactions.


NEW QUESTION # 361
The management plane is used to administer a cloud environment and perform administrative tasks across a variety of systems, but most specifically it's used with the hypervisors.
What does the management plane typically leverage for this orchestration?

  • A. APIs
  • B. XML
  • C. TLS
  • D. Scripts

Answer: A

Explanation:
The management plane uses APIs to execute remote calls across the cloud environment to various management systems, especially hypervisors. This allows a centralized administrative interface, often a web portal, to orchestrate tasks throughout an enterprise. Scripts may be utilized to execute API calls, but they are not used directly to interact with systems. XML is used for data encoding and transmission, but not for executing remote calls. TLS is used to encrypt communications and may be used with API calls, but it is not the actual process for executing commands.


NEW QUESTION # 362
Best practices for key management include all of the following, except:

  • A. Pass keys out of band
  • B. Maintain key security
  • C. Have key recovery processes
  • D. Ensure multifactor authentication

Answer: D

Explanation:
We should do all of these except for requiring multifactor authentication, which is pointless in key management.


NEW QUESTION # 363
Where is an XML firewall most commonly and effectively deployed in the environment?

  • A. Between the application and data layers
  • B. Between the IPS and firewall
  • C. Between the firewall and application server
  • D. Between the presentation and application layers

Answer: C

Explanation:
An XML firewall is most commonly deployed in line between the firewall and application server to validate XML code before it reaches the application. An XML firewall is intended to validate XML before it reaches the application. Placing the XML firewall between the presentation and application layers, between the firewall and IPS, or between the application and data layers would not serve the intended purpose.


NEW QUESTION # 364
Which value refers to the percentage of production level restoration needed to meet BCDR objectives?

  • A. RPO
  • B. RTO
  • C. SRE
  • D. RSL

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The recovery service level (RSL) is a percentage measure of the total typical production service level that needs to be restored to meet BCDR objectives in the case of a failure.


NEW QUESTION # 365
In the cloud motif, the data processor is usually:

  • A. The cloud provider
  • B. The cloud customer
  • C. The cloud access security broker
  • D. The party that assigns access rights

Answer: A

Explanation:
In legal terms, when "data processor" is defined, it refers to anyone who stores, handles, moves, or manipulates data on behalf of the data owner or controller. In the cloud computing realm, this is the cloud provider.


NEW QUESTION # 366
Which of the following is NOT a criterion for data within the scope of eDiscovery?

  • A. Control
  • B. Archive
  • C. Possession
  • D. Custody

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
eDiscovery pertains to information and data that is in the possession, control, and custody of an organization.


NEW QUESTION # 367
Which of the following threat types involves leveraging a user's browser to send untrusted data to be executed with legitimate access via the user's valid credentials?

  • A. Missing function-level access control
  • B. Cross-site request forgery
  • C. Cross-site scripting
  • D. Injection

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
ExplanationCross-site scripting (XSS) is an attack where a malicious actor is able to send untrusted data to a user's browser without going through any validation or sanitization processes, or perhaps the code is not properly escaped from processing by the browser. The code is then executed on the user's browser with their own access and permissions, allowing the attacker to redirect the user's web traffic, steal data from their session, or potentially access information on the user's own computer that their browser has the ability to access. Missing function-level access control exists where an application only checks for authorization during the initial login process and does not further validate with each function call. An injection attack is where a malicious actor sends commands or other arbitrary data through input and data fields with the intent of having the application or system execute the code as part of its normal processing and queries. Cross-site request forgery occurs when an attack forces an authenticated user to send forged requests to an application running under their own access and credentials.


NEW QUESTION # 368
What must SOAP rely on for security since it does not provide security as a built-in capability?

  • A. SSL
  • B. Encryption
  • C. Tokenization
  • D. TLS

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Simple Object Access Protocol (SOAP) uses Extensible Markup Language (XML) for data passing, and it must rely on the encryption of those data packages for security. TLS and SSL (before it was deprecated) represent two commons approaches to using encryption for protection of data transmissions. However, they are only two possible options and do not encapsulate the overall concept the question is looking for.
Tokenization, which involves the replacement of sensitive data with opaque values, would not be appropriate for use with SOAP because the actual data is needed by the services.


NEW QUESTION # 369
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