[Mar-2026] 212-82 PDF Dumps Are Helpful To produce Your Dreams Correct QA's
New 212-82 exam Free Sample Questions to Practice
In order to take the ECCouncil 212-82 certification exam, individuals must have a basic understanding of networking concepts and protocols. 212-82 exam consists of 50 multiple-choice questions, and the passing score is 70%. Certified Cybersecurity Technician certification is valid for three years and can be renewed by taking the latest version of the exam or through continuing education credits. Obtaining the ECCouncil 212-82 certification can enhance an individual's credibility and increase their career opportunities in the field of cybersecurity.
NEW QUESTION # 12
Galactic Innovations, an emerging tech start-up. Is developing a proprietary software solution that will be hosted on a cloud platform. The software, designed for real-time communication and collaboration, aims to cater to global users, including top-tier businesses. As the software grows in complexity, the company recognizes the need for a comprehensive security standard that aligns with global best practices. The Intention is to enhance trustworthiness among potential clients and ensure that the application meets industry-accepted criteria, particularly in the face of increasing cyberthreats. Considering the company's requirements and the international nature of its user base, which software security standard, model, or framework should Galactic Innovations primarily focus on adopting?
- A. USAM
- B. ISAS
- C. QlSO/IEC 27001:2013
- D. GCSP
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 13
Finley, a security professional at an organization, was tasked with monitoring the organizational network behavior through the SIEM dashboard. While monitoring, Finley noticed suspicious activities in the network; thus, he captured and analyzed a single network packet to determine whether the signature included malicious patterns. Identify the attack signature analysis technique employed by Finley in this scenario.
- A. Atomic-signature-based analysis
- B. Content-based signature analysis
- C. Context-based signature analysis
- D. Composite signature-based analysis
Answer: B
Explanation:
Content-based signature analysis is the attack signature analysis technique employed by Finley in this scenario. Content-based signature analysis is a technique that captures and analyzes a single network packet to determine whether the signature included malicious patterns. Content-based signature analysis can be used to detect known attacks, such as buffer overflows, SQL injections, or cross-site scripting2.
References: Content-Based Signature Analysis
NEW QUESTION # 14
Alpha Finance, a leading banking institution, is launching anew mobile banking app. Given the sensitive financial data involved, it wants to ensure that Its application follows the best security practices. As the primary recommendation, which guideline should Alpha Finance prioritize?
- A. Providing an in-app VPN for secure transactions
- B. Employing multi-factor authentication (MFA) for user logins
- C. Encouraging users to update to the latest version of their OS
- D. Embedding an antivirus within the app
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 15
A web application www.movieabc.com was found to be prone to SQL injection attack. You are given a task to exploit the web application and fetch the user credentials. Select the UID which is mapped to user john in the database table.
Note:
Username: sam
Pass: test
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: D
Explanation:
4 is the UID that is mapped to user john in the database table in the above scenario. SQL injection is a type of web application attack that exploits a vulnerability in a web application that allows an attacker to inject malicious SQL statements into an input field, such as a username or password field, and execute them on the database server. SQL injection can be used to bypass authentication, access or modify sensitive data, execute commands, etc. To exploit the web application and fetch the user credentials, one has to follow these steps:
Open a web browser and type www.movieabc.com
Press Enter key to access the web application.
Enter sam as username and test as password.
Click on Login button.
Observe that a welcome message with username sam is displayed.
Click on Logout button.
Enter sam' or '1'='1 as username and test as password.
Click on Login button.
Observe that a welcome message with username admin is displayed, indicating that SQL injection was successful.
Click on Logout button.
Enter sam'; SELECT * FROM users; ?as username and test as password.
Click on Login button.
Observe that an error message with user credentials from users table is displayed.
The user credentials from users table are:
The UID that is mapped to user john is 4.
NEW QUESTION # 16
Ruben, a crime investigator, wants to retrieve all the deleted files and folders in the suspected media without affecting the original files. For this purpose, he uses a method that involves the creation of a cloned copy of the entire media and prevents the contamination of the original media.
Identify the method utilized by Ruben in the above scenario.
- A. Drive decryption
- B. Logical acquisition
- C. Sparse acquisition
- D. Bit-stream imaging
Answer: D
Explanation:
Bit-stream imaging is the method utilized by Ruben in the above scenario. Bit-stream imaging is a method that involves creating a cloned copy of the entire media and prevents the contamination of the original media. Bit-stream imaging copies all the data on the media, including deleted files and folders, hidden partitions, slack space, etc., at a bit level. Bit-stream imaging preserves the integrity and authenticity of the digital evidence and allows further analysis without affecting the original media. Sparse acquisition is a method that involves creating a partial copy of the media by skipping empty sectors or blocks. Drive decryption is a method that involves decrypting an encrypted drive or partition using a password or a key. Logical acquisition is a method that involves creating a copy of the logical files and folders on the media using file system commands.
NEW QUESTION # 17
A pfSense firewall has been configured to block a web application www.abchacker.com. Perform an analysis on the rules set by the admin and select the protocol which has been used to apply the rule.
Hint: Firewall login credentials are given below:
Username: admin
Password: admin@l23
- A. POP3
- B. FTP
- C. ARP
- D. TCP/UDP
Answer: D
Explanation:
TCP/UDP is the protocol that has been used to apply the rule to block the web application www.abchacker.com in the above scenario. pfSense is a firewall and router software that can be installed on a computer or a device to protect a network from various threats and attacks.
pfSense can be configured to block or allow traffic based on various criteria, such as source, destination, port, protocol, etc. pfSense rules are applied to traffic in the order they appear in the firewall configuration.To perform an analysis on the rules set by the admin, one has to follow these steps:
Open a web browser and type 20.20.10.26
Press Enter key to access the pfSense web interface.
Enter admin as username and admin@l23 as password.
Click on Login button.
Click on Firewall menu and select Rules option.
Click on LAN tab and observe the rules applied to LAN interface.
The rules applied to LAN interface are:
The first rule blocks any traffic from LAN interface to www.abchacker.com website using TCP/UDP protocol. The second rule allows any traffic from LAN interface to any destination using any protocol. Since the first rule appears before the second rule, it has higher priority and will be applied first. Therefore, TCP/UDP is the protocol that has been used to apply the rule to block the web application www.abchacker.com. POP3 (Post Office Protocol 3) is a protocol that allows downloading emails from a mail server to a client device. FTP (File Transfer Protocol) is a protocol that allows transferring files between a client and a server over a network. ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) is a protocol that resolves IP addresses to MAC (Media Access Control) addresses on a network.
NEW QUESTION # 18
An organization divided its IT infrastructure into multiple departments to ensure secure connections for data access. To provide high-speed data access, the administrator implemented a PAID level that broke data into sections and stored them across multiple drives. The storage capacity of this RAID level was equal to the sum of disk capacities in the set. which of the following RAID levels was implemented by the administrator in the above scenario?
- A. RAID Level 5
- B. RAID Level 1
- C. RAID Level 3
- D. RAID Level 0
Answer: D
Explanation:
RAID Level 0 is the RAID level that was implemented by the administrator in the above scenario. RAID Level 0 is also known as striping, which breaks data into sections and stores them across multiple drives. RAID Level 0 provides high-speed data access and increases performance, but it does not provide any redundancy or fault tolerance. The storage capacity of RAID Level 0 is equal to the sum of disk capacities in the set3. Reference: RAID Level 0
NEW QUESTION # 19
DigitalVault Corp., a premier financial institution, has recently seen a significant rise in advanced persistent threats (APTs)targetlng Its mainframe systems. Considering the sensitivity of the data stored, It wants to employ a strategy that deceives attackers into revealing their techniques. As part of its defense strategy, the cybersecurity team is deliberating over-deploying a honeypot system. Given the bank's requirements, the team are evaluating different types of honeypots. DigitalVault's primary goal Is to gather extensive Information about the attackers' methods without putting its actual systems at risk. Which of the following honeypots would BEST serve DigitalVault's intent?
- A. High-interaction honeypots, offering a real system's replica for attackers, and observing their every move.
- B. Production honeypots, which are part of the organization's active network and collect information about dally attacks.
- C. Reserch honeypots, aimed at understanding threats to a specific industry and sharing insights with the broader community.
- D. Low-interaction honeypots, designed to log basic information such as IP addresses and attack vectors.
Answer: A
Explanation:
* High-Interaction Honeypots:
* High-interaction honeypots simulate real systems, offering attackers a full operating environment to interact with, thereby providing detailed insights into their methods and techniques.
NEW QUESTION # 20
Shawn, a forensic officer, was appointed to investigate a crime scene that had occurred at a coffee shop. As a part of investigation, Shawn collected the mobile device from the victim, which may contain potential evidence to identify the culprits.
Which of the following points must Shawn follow while preserving the digital evidence? (Choose three.)
- A. Turn the device ON if it is OFF
- B. Do not leave the device as it is if it is ON
- C. Make sure that the device is charged
- D. Never record the screen display of the device
Answer: A,B,C
NEW QUESTION # 21
You are Harris working for a web development company. You have been assigned to perform a task for vulnerability assessment on the given IP address 20.20.10.26. Select the vulnerability that may affect the website according to the severity factor.
Hint: Greenbone web credentials: admin/password
- A. FTP Unencrypted Cleartext Login
- B. UDP timestamps
- C. TCP timestamps
- D. Anonymous FTP Login Reporting
Answer: A
Explanation:
FTP Unencrypted Cleartext Login is the vulnerability that may affect the website according to the severity factor in the above scenario. A vulnerability is a weakness or flaw in a system or network that can be exploited by an attacker to compromise its security or functionality. A vulnerability assessment is a process that involves identifying, analyzing, and evaluating vulnerabilities in a system or network using various tools and techniques. Greenbone is a tool that can perform vulnerability assessment on various targets using various tests and scans. To perform a vulnerability assessment on the given IP address 20.20.10.26, one has to follow these steps:
* Open a web browser and type 20.20.10.26:9392
* Press Enter key to access the Greenbone web interface.
* Enter admin as username and password as password.
* Click on Login button.
* Click on Scans menu and select Tasks option.
* Click on Start Scan icon next to IP Address Scan task.
* Wait for the scan to complete and click on Report icon next to IP Address Scan task.
* Observe the vulnerabilities found by the scan.
The vulnerabilities found by the scan are:
The vulnerability that may affect the website according to the severity factor is FTP Unencrypted Cleartext Login, which has a medium severity level. FTP Unencrypted Cleartext Login is a vulnerability that allows an attacker to intercept or sniff FTP login credentials that are sent in cleartext over an unencrypted connection.
An attacker can use these credentials to access or modify files or data on the FTP server. TCP timestamps and UDP timestamps are vulnerabilities that allow an attacker to estimate the uptime of a system or network by analyzing the timestamp values in TCP or UDP packets. Anonymous FTP Login Reporting is a vulnerabilitythat allows an attacker to access an FTP server anonymously without providing any username or password.
NEW QUESTION # 22
Grace, an online shopping freak, has purchased a smart TV using her debit card. During online payment, Grace's browser redirected her from ecommerce website to a third-party payment gateway, where she provided her debit card details and OTP received on her registered mobile phone. After completing the transaction, Grace navigated to her online bank account and verified the current balance in her savings account.
Identify the state of data when it is being processed between the ecommerce website and the payment gateway in the above scenario.
- A. Data at rest
- B. Data in transit
- C. Data in use
- D. Data in inactive
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 23
A text file containing sensitive information about the organization has been leaked and modified to bring down the reputation of the organization. As a safety measure, the organization did contain the MD5 hash of the original file. The file which has been leaked is retained for examining the integrity. A file named "Sensitiveinfo.txt" along with OriginalFileHash.txt has been stored in a folder named Hash in Documents of Attacker Machine-1. Compare the hash value of the original file with the leaked file and state whether the file has been modified or not by selecting yes or no.
- A. No
- B. Yes
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 24
Zion belongs to a category of employees who are responsible for implementing and managing the physical security equipment installed around the facility. He was instructed by the management to check the functionality of equipment related to physical security. Identify the designation of Zion.
- A. Safety officer
- B. Supervisor
- C. Guard
- D. Chief information security officer
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct answer is C, as it identifies the designation of Zion. A guard is a person who is responsible for implementing and managing the physical security equipment installed around the facility. A guard typically performs tasks such as:
* Checking the functionality of equipment related to physical security
* Monitoring the surveillance cameras and alarms
* Controlling the access to restricted areas
* Responding to emergencies or incidents
In the above scenario, Zion belongs to this category of employees who are responsible for implementing and managing the physical security equipment installed around the facility. Option A is incorrect, as it does not identify the designation of Zion. A supervisor is a person who is responsible for overseeing and directing the work of other employees. A supervisor typically performs tasks such as:
* Assigning tasks and responsibilities to employees
* Evaluating the performance and productivity of employees
* Providing feedback and guidance to employees
* Resolving conflicts or issues among employees
In the above scenario, Zion does not belong to this category of employees who are responsible for overseeing and directing the work of other employees. Option B is incorrect, as it does not identify the designation of Zion. A chief information security officer (CISO) is a person who is responsible for establishing and maintaining the security vision, strategy, and program for an organization. A CISO typically performs tasks such as:
* Developing and implementing security policies and standards
* Managing security risks and compliance
* Leading security teams and projects
* Communicating with senior management and stakeholders
In the above scenario, Zion does not belong to this category of employees who are responsible for establishing and maintaining the security vision, strategy, and program for an organization. Option D is incorrect, as it does not identify the designation of Zion. A safety officer is a person who is responsible for ensuring that health and safety regulations are followed in an organization. A safety officer typically performs tasks such as:
* Conducting safety inspections and audits
* Identifying and eliminating hazards and risks
* Providing safety training and awareness
* Reporting and investigating accidents or incidents
In the above scenario, Zion does not belong to this category of employees who are responsible for ensuring that health and safety regulations are followed in an organization. References: Section 7.1
NEW QUESTION # 25
Grace, an online shopping enthusiast, purchased a smart TV using her debit card. During online payment. Grace's browser redirected her from the e-commerce website to a third-party payment gateway, where she provided her debit card details and the OTP received on her registered mobile phone. After completing the transaction, Grace logged Into her online bank account and verified the current balance in her savings account, identify the state of data being processed between the e-commerce website and payment gateway in the above scenario.
- A. Data at rest
- B. Data in transit
- C. Data in use
- D. Data in inactive
Answer: B
Explanation:
Data in transit is the state of data being processed between the e-commerce website and payment gateway in the above scenario. Data in transit is the data that is moving from one location to another over a network, such as the internet. Data in transit can be vulnerable to interception, modification, or theft by unauthorized parties. Therefore, data in transit should be protected using encryption, authentication, and secure protocols.
NEW QUESTION # 26
MediData, a leading healthcare data analytics firm based in the US, has made significant strides in advance health diagnostics using Al. With a vast repository of patient data and seeing the potential market In Europ MediData plans to expand its services there. However, the leadership is wary. Europe's stringent data protects regulations require companies to adapt their data processing practices. The legal team at MediData is task; with ensuring compliance and minimizing potential litigation or penalties. As MediData plans its Europe; expansion, which regulatory framework should it be most concerned with?
- A. European Union General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR)
- B. Federal Information Security Management Act (FISMA)
- C. Sarbanes-Oxley Act
- D. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)
Answer: A
Explanation:
* GDPR Overview:
* The General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) is a regulation in EU law on data protection and privacy for individuals within the European Union and the European Economic Area.
NEW QUESTION # 27
Thomas, an employee of an organization, is restricted from accessing specific websites from his office system.
He is trying to obtain admin credentials to remove the restrictions. While waiting for an opportunity, he sniffed communication between the administrator and an application server to retrieve the admin credentials. Identify the type of attack performed by Thomas in the above scenario.
- A. Vishing
- B. Eavesdropping
- C. Phishing
- D. Dumpster diving
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is B, as it identifies the type of attack performed by Thomas in the above scenario.
Eavesdropping is a type of attack that involves intercepting and listening to the communication between two parties without their knowledge or consent. Thomas performed eavesdropping by sniffing communication between the administrator and an application server to retrieve the admin credentials. Option A is incorrect, as it does not identify the type of attack performed by Thomas in the above scenario. Vishing is a type of attack that involves using voice calls to trick people into revealing sensitive information or performing malicious actions. Thomas did not use voice calls but sniffed network traffic. Option C is incorrect, as it does not identify the type of attack performed by Thomas in the above scenario. Phishing is a type of attack that involves sending fraudulent emails or messages that appear to be from legitimate sources to lure people into revealing sensitive information or performing malicious actions. Thomas did not send any emails or messages but sniffed network traffic. Option D is incorrect, as it does not identify the type of attack performed by Thomas in the above scenario. Dumpster diving is a type of attack that involves searching through trash or discarded items to findvaluable information or resources. Thomas did not search through trash or discarded items but sniffed network traffic.
References: Section 2.2
NEW QUESTION # 28
Walker, a security team member at an organization, was instructed to check if a deployed cloud service is working as expected. He performed an independent examination of cloud service controls to verify adherence to standards through a review of objective evidence. Further, Walker evaluated the services provided by the CSP regarding security controls, privacy impact, and performance. Identify the role played by Walker in the above scenario.
- A. Cloud consumer
- B. Cloud auditor
- C. Cloud carrier
- D. Cloud provider
Answer: B
Explanation:
A cloud auditor is a role played by Walker in the above scenario. A cloud auditor is a third party who examines controls of cloud computing service providers. Cloud auditor performs an audit to verify compliance with the standards and expressed his opinion through a report. A cloud provider is an entity that provides cloud services, such as infrastructure, platform, or software, to cloud consumers. A cloud carrier is an entity that provides connectivity and transport of cloud services between cloud providers and cloud consumers. A cloud consumer is an entity that uses cloud services for its own purposes or on behalf of another entity.
NEW QUESTION # 29
Steve, a network engineer, was tasked with troubleshooting a network issue that is causing unexpected packet drops. For this purpose, he employed a network troubleshooting utility to capture the ICMP echo request packets sent to the server. He identified that certain packets are dropped at the gateway due to poor network connection.
Identify the network troubleshooting utility employed by Steve in the above scenario.
- A. ipconfig
- B. traceroute
- C. dnsenurn
- D. arp
Answer: B
Explanation:
Traceroute is the network troubleshooting utility employed by Steve in the above scenario.
Traceroute is a utility that traces the route of packets from a source host to a destination host over a network. Traceroute sends ICMP echo request packets with increasing TTL (Time to Live) values and records the ICMP echo reply packets from each intermediate router or gateway along the path. Traceroute can help identify the network hops, latency, and packet loss between the source and destination hosts.Dnsenum is a utility that enumerates DNS information from a domain name or an IP address. Arp is a utility that displays and modifies the ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) cache of a host. Ipconfig is a utility that displays and configures the IP (Internet Protocol) settings of a host.
NEW QUESTION # 30
Bob was recently hired by a medical company after it experienced a major cyber security breach. Many patients are complaining that their personal medical records are fully exposed on the Internet and someone can find them with a simple Google search. Bob's boss is very worried because of regulations that protect those data. Which of the following regulations is mostly violated?
- A. ISO 2002
- B. PCIDSS
- C. HIPPA/PHl
- D. Pll
Answer: C
Explanation:
HIPPA/PHI is the regulation that is mostly violated in the above scenario. HIPPA (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act) is a US federal law that sets standards for protecting the privacy and security of health information. PHI (Protected Health Information) is any information that relates to the health or health care of an individual and that can identify the individual, such as name, address, medical records, etc.
HIPPA/PHI requires covered entities, such as health care providers, health plans, or health care clearinghouses, and their business associates, to safeguard PHI from unauthorized access, use, or disclosure .
In the scenario, the medical company experienced a major cyber security breach that exposed the personal medical records of many patients on the internet, which violates HIPPA/PHI regulations. PII (Personally Identifiable Information) is any information that can be used to identify a specific individual, such as name, address, social security number, etc. PII is not specific to health information and can be regulated by various laws, such as GDPR (General Data Protection Regulation), CCPA (California Consumer Privacy Act), etc.
PCI DSS (Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard)is a set of standards that applies to entities that store, process, or transmit payment card information, such as merchants, service providers, or payment processors.
PCI DSS requires them to protect cardholder data from unauthorized access, use, or disclosure. ISO 2002 (International Organization for Standardization 2002) is not a regulation, but a standard for information security management systems that provides guidelines and best practices for organizations to manage their information security risks.
NEW QUESTION # 31
Ashton is working as a security specialist in SoftEight Tech. He was instructed by the management to strengthen the Internet access policy. For this purpose, he implemented a type of Internet access policy that forbids everything and imposes strict restrictions on all company computers, whether it is system or network usage.
Identify the type of Internet access policy implemented by Ashton in the above scenario.
- A. Promiscuous policy
- B. Paranoid policy
- C. Permissive policy
- D. Prudent policy
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 32
Ayden works from home on his company's laptop. During working hours, he received an antivirus software update notification on his laptop. Ayden clicked on the update button; however, the system restricted the update and displayed a message stating that the update could only be performed by authorized personnel. Which of the following PCI-DSS requirements is demonstrated In this scenario?
- A. PCI-DSS requirement no 53
- B. PCI-DSS requirement no 1.3.1
- C. PCI-DSS requirement no 5.1
- D. PCI-DSS requirement no 1.3.2
Answer: A
Explanation:
PCI-DSS requirement no 5.3 is the PCI-DSS requirement that is demonstrated in this scenario.
PCI-DSS (Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard) is a set of standards that applies to entities that store, process, or transmit payment card information, such as merchants, service providers, or payment processors. PCI-DSS requires them to protect cardholder data from unauthorized access, use, or disclosure. PCI-DSS consists of 12 requirements that are grouped into six categories: build and maintain a secure network and systems, protect cardholder data, maintain a vulnerability management program, implement strong access control measures, regularly monitor and test networks, and maintain an information security policy. PCI-DSS requirement no 5.3 is part of the category "maintain a vulnerability management program" and states that antivirus mechanisms must be actively running and cannot be disabled or altered by users, unless specifically authorized by management on a case-by-case basis for a limited time period. In the scenario, Ayden works from home on his company's laptop. During working hours, he received an antivirus software update notification on his laptop. Ayden clicked on the update button; however, the system restricted the update and displayed a message stating that the update could only be performed by authorized personnel. This means that his company's laptop has an antivirus mechanism that is actively running and cannot be disabled or altered by users, which demonstrates PCI-DSS requirement no 5.3.
NEW QUESTION # 33
Walker, a security team member at an organization, was instructed to check if a deployed cloud service is working as expected. He performed an independent examination of cloud service controls to verify adherence to standards through a review of objective evidence. Further, Walker evaluated the services provided by the CSP regarding security controls, privacy impact, and performance.
Identify the role played by Walker in the above scenario.
- A. Cloud consumer
- B. Cloud auditor
- C. Cloud carrier
- D. Cloud provider
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 34
A startup firm contains various devices connected to a wireless network across the floor. An AP with Internet connectivity is placed in a corner to allow wireless communication between devices. To support new devices connected to the network beyond the APS range, an administrator used a network device that extended the signals of the wireless AP and transmitted it to uncovered area, identify the network component employed by the administrator to extend signals in this scenario.
- A. Wireless router
- B. Wireless bridge
- C. Wireless repeater
- D. wireless modem
Answer: C
Explanation:
Wireless repeater is the network component employed by the administrator to extend signals in this scenario.
A wireless network is a type of network that uses radio waves or infrared signals to transmit data between devices without using cables or wires. A wireless network can consist of various components, such as wireless access points (APs), wireless routers, wireless adapters, wireless bridges, wireless repeaters, etc. A wireless repeater is a network component that extends the range or coverage of a wireless signal by receiving it from an AP or another repeater and retransmitting it to another area . A wireless repeater can be used to support new devices connected to the network beyond the AP's range . In the scenario, a startup firm contains various devices connected to a wireless network across the floor. An AP with internet connectivity is placed in a corner to allow wireless communication between devices. To support new devices connected to the network beyond the AP's range, an administrator used a network component that extended the signals of the wireless AP and transmitted it to the uncovered area. This means that he used a wireless repeater for this purpose. A wireless bridge is a network component that connects two or more wired or wireless networks or segments together . A wireless bridge can be used to expand the network or share resources between networks . A wireless modem is a network component that modulates and demodulates wireless signals to enable data transmission over anetwork . A wireless modem can be used to provide internet access to devices via a cellular network or a satellite network . A wireless router is a network component that performs the functions of both a wireless AP and a router . A wireless router can be used to create a wireless network and connect it to another network, such as the internet
NEW QUESTION # 35
Arabella, a forensic officer, documented all the evidence related to the case in a standard forensic investigation report template. She filled different sections of the report covering all the details of the crime along with the daily progress of the investigation process. In which of the following sections of the forensic investigation report did Arabella record the "nature of the claim and information provided to the officers"?
- A. Evaluation and analysis process
- B. Investigation objectives
- C. Evidence information
- D. Investigation process
Answer: B
Explanation:
Investigation objectives is the section of the forensic investigation report where Arabella recorded the "nature of the claim and information provided to the officers" in the above scenario. A forensic investigation report is a document that summarizes the findings and conclusions of a forensic investigation. A forensic investigation report typically follows a standard template that contains different sections covering all the details of the crime and the investigation process. Investigation objectives is the section of the forensic investigation report that describes the purpose and scope of the investigation, the nature of the claim and information provided to the officers, and the questions or issues to be addressed by the investigation. Investigation process is the section of the forensic investigation report that describes the steps and methods followed by the investigators, such as evidence collection, preservation, analysis, etc. Evidence information is the section of the forensic investigation report that lists and describes the evidence obtained from various sources, such as devices, media, witnesses, etc. Evaluation and analysis process is the section of the forensic investigation report that explains how the evidence was evaluated and analyzed using various tools and techniques, such as software, hardware, etc.
NEW QUESTION # 36
Kayden successfully cracked the final round of interviews at an organization. After a few days, he received his offer letter through an official company email address. The email stated that the selected candidate should respond within a specified time. Kayden accepted the opportunity and provided an e-signature on the offer letter, then replied to the same email address. The company validated the e-signature and added his details to their database. Here, Kayden could not deny the company's message, and the company could not deny Kayden's signature.
Which of the following information security elements was described in the above scenario?
- A. Confidentiality
- B. Non-repudiation
- C. Integrity
- D. Availability
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is B, as it describes the information security element that was described in the above scenario. Non-repudiation is an information security element that ensures that a party cannot deny sending or receiving a message or performing an action. In the above scenario, non-repudiation was described, as Kayden could not deny company's message, and company could not deny Kayden's signature. Option A is incorrect, as it does not describe the information security element that was described in the above scenario. Availability is an information security element that ensures that authorized users can access and use information and resources when needed. In the above scenario, availability was not described, as there was no mention of access or use of information and resources. Option C is incorrect, as it does not describe the information security element that was described in the above scenario. Integrity is an information security element that ensures that information and resources are accurate and complete and have not been modified by unauthorized parties. In the above scenario, integrity was not described, as there was no mention of accuracy or completeness of information and resources. Option D is incorrect, as it does not describe the information security element that was described in the above scenario. Confidentiality is an information security element that ensures that information and resources are protected from unauthorized access and disclosure.In the above scenario, confidentiality was not described, as there was no mention of protection or disclosure of information and resources.
References: , Section 3.1
NEW QUESTION # 37
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ECCouncil 212-82: Certified Cybersecurity Technician exam is an excellent choice for individuals who are interested in pursuing a career in cybersecurity. Certified Cybersecurity Technician certification can help individuals gain the skills and knowledge necessary to succeed in this field and demonstrate their commitment to ongoing professional development.
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